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IMC2025: Day 2, Problem 6Problem 6. Let \(\displaystyle f\colon (0,\infty) \to \mathbb{R}\) be a continuously differentiable function, and let \(\displaystyle b>a>0\) be real numbers such that \(\displaystyle f(a)=f(b) = k\). Prove that there exists a point \(\displaystyle \xi\in(a,b)\) such that \(\displaystyle f(\xi)-\xi f'(\xi)=k . \) Alberto Cagnetta, Università degli Studi di Udine Solution. Observe that if we consider \(\displaystyle g(x) = f(x)/x\) and take its derivative, we get \(\displaystyle g'(x) = \frac{xf'(x)-f(x)}{x^{2}}, \) where the numerator is almost the expression we have in the problem. Now we apply Cauchy's theorem to the functions \(\displaystyle g(x) = f(x) / x\) and \(\displaystyle h(x)=1/x\), well-defined over \(\displaystyle [a,b]\). This gives us the existence of a value \(\displaystyle \xi\in[a,b]\) such that \(\displaystyle \frac{g(a)-g(b)}{h(a)-h(b)} = \frac{g'(\xi)}{h'(\xi)}. \) Here, \(\displaystyle \frac{g'(\xi)}{h'(\xi)} = \frac{\frac{\xi f'(\xi)-f(\xi)}{\xi^{2}}}{-\frac{1}{\xi^{2}}} = f(\xi)-\xi f'(\xi) \) and \(\displaystyle \frac{g(a)-g(b)}{h(a)-h(b)} = \frac{\frac{f(a)}{a}-\frac{f(b)}{b}}{\frac{1}{a}-\frac{1}{b}} = k, \) which concludes the proof. | |||||||||||||||||
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